04-20-2012, 07:13 PM
(This post was last modified: 04-24-2012, 04:27 PM by Director Michael.)
I would just like some advice. Rambam stated in the Mishneh Torah that a gentile is one of the pious ones of the nations if he keeps the seven laws according to their details because they were commanded by G-d to Moses. I also know that he states a number of times that the pious of the nations have a share in the world to come.
Now I've checked part of the Talmud that applies to us Noahides (just for reference, not for in-depth study) and can see the source for the idea that the pious of the nations have a place in the world to come. Do you know the source in the Torah (written or oral) that states that a ben noah must believe that G-d commanded the Torah to Moses to be among the pious of the nations and have a place in the world to come? Is that part of the Talmud too, or amongst the Tosefos, or some of the Rishonim?
I know it will be for HaShem alone to judge whether he accepts a non-Jew into his coming world, the World to Come. But Rambam sets a standard, and I just want to know if it's his educated conclusion or whether he is drawing strands for Talmudic sources or those of the Rishonim.
And the motive behind my question is seen in the following analogy:
There are these categories:
- an atheist/idolator
- a person who accepts the one G-d and whose actions agree with the seven laws of Noah but doesn't believe (whether he is convinced of this or is just ignorant) that G-d commanded the Noahide laws to Moses
- a person who keeps the laws of Noah because they were commanded by G-d to Moses.
Now I know about the status of the last individual, i.e., pious. I have my opinion about the first since I think he goes against some fundamentals or against Noahide law. But what about the middle person?
One last question: I have my own opinion on which of the Noahide laws an atheist breaks (I believe it's blasphemy and the part of the law of idolatry that says "let the fear of Me be upon you"). As you know the Noahide law much more, what is the state of an atheist, even if he seems to observe the Noahide laws out of intellectual conviction. I know what Rambam says about him not being a pious, but the question I mean to ask is whether he breaks any of the Noahide laws by ascribing his own view to the notion that there is no G-d whatsoever.
Thanks for whatever information you can give.
Now I've checked part of the Talmud that applies to us Noahides (just for reference, not for in-depth study) and can see the source for the idea that the pious of the nations have a place in the world to come. Do you know the source in the Torah (written or oral) that states that a ben noah must believe that G-d commanded the Torah to Moses to be among the pious of the nations and have a place in the world to come? Is that part of the Talmud too, or amongst the Tosefos, or some of the Rishonim?
I know it will be for HaShem alone to judge whether he accepts a non-Jew into his coming world, the World to Come. But Rambam sets a standard, and I just want to know if it's his educated conclusion or whether he is drawing strands for Talmudic sources or those of the Rishonim.
And the motive behind my question is seen in the following analogy:
There are these categories:
- an atheist/idolator
- a person who accepts the one G-d and whose actions agree with the seven laws of Noah but doesn't believe (whether he is convinced of this or is just ignorant) that G-d commanded the Noahide laws to Moses
- a person who keeps the laws of Noah because they were commanded by G-d to Moses.
Now I know about the status of the last individual, i.e., pious. I have my opinion about the first since I think he goes against some fundamentals or against Noahide law. But what about the middle person?
One last question: I have my own opinion on which of the Noahide laws an atheist breaks (I believe it's blasphemy and the part of the law of idolatry that says "let the fear of Me be upon you"). As you know the Noahide law much more, what is the state of an atheist, even if he seems to observe the Noahide laws out of intellectual conviction. I know what Rambam says about him not being a pious, but the question I mean to ask is whether he breaks any of the Noahide laws by ascribing his own view to the notion that there is no G-d whatsoever.
Thanks for whatever information you can give.